Law Officer-Practice-7

Practice questions

1. Under the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969, which Article defines a treaty?
   • Article 1
   • Article 2
   • Article 5
   • Article 10
2. Under Article 26 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, the principle pacta sunt servanda means:
   • Treaties may be ignored whenever governments change
   • Every treaty is automatically invalid
   • Every treaty in force is binding upon its parties and must be performed in good faith
   • Treaties are binding only after approval by an international court
3. Under Article 27 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, a party may generally invoke its internal law to justify failure to perform a treaty:
   • In every case
   • Only when its parliament disagrees
   • Only when its courts permit it
   • No, subject to the limited rule in Article 46
4. Under Article 31 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, a treaty is generally interpreted:
   • In good faith according to the ordinary meaning of its terms in their context and in light of its object and purpose
   • Only according to one party's domestic law
   • Exclusively according to the negotiating state's political statements
   • Only by examining dictionary definitions
5. Under Article 19 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, a State may formulate a reservation to a treaty unless:
   • The treaty is written in more than one language
   • The treaty prohibits the reservation, permits only specified reservations that do not include it, or the reservation is incompatible with the treaty's object and purpose
   • Another State has signed a different treaty
   • The treaty concerns international cooperation
6. Under Article 46 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, a State's violation of its internal law concerning competence to conclude treaties invalidates its consent only when the violation is:
   • Minor and technical
   • Unknown to the State's citizens
   • Manifest and concerns a rule of internal law of fundamental importance
   • Raised by any private individual
7. Under Article 54 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, termination of a treaty or withdrawal by a party may take place:
   • Only by a unilateral announcement in every case
   • Only after a judgment of the ICJ
   • Only when all treaties between the States are terminated
   • In conformity with the treaty's provisions or at any time by consent of all parties after consultation with the other contracting States
8. Under Article 60 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, a material breach of a bilateral treaty by one party may entitle the other party to:
   • Invoke the breach as a ground for terminating the treaty or suspending its operation in whole or in part
   • Automatically annex the other State's territory
   • Impose any punishment without legal limits
   • Cancel all international law obligations permanently
9. Under Article 62 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, a fundamental change of circumstances may justify termination or withdrawal only when specified conditions are met. Which statement is correct?
   • Every political change automatically terminates a treaty
   • A change in government always ends treaty obligations
   • A fundamental change can never be relevant
   • The change must have been unforeseen, the circumstances must have constituted an essential basis of consent, and the change must radically transform the extent of obligations still to be performed, subject to the Article's exclusions
10. Under Article 53 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, a treaty is void if, at the time of its conclusion, it conflicts with:
    • Any domestic policy preference
    • A peremptory norm of general international law (jus cogens)
    • A non-binding political declaration
    • A unilateral press statement
11. Which body is principally responsible for determining whether a State qualifies for membership in the United Nations, following the Charter's recommendation and decision process?
    • The International Court of Justice alone
    • The General Assembly acting without a Security Council recommendation
    • The Security Council recommends admission and the General Assembly decides on admission
    • The Secretary-General admits States independently
12. Under Article 25 of the UN Charter, UN Members agree to:
    • Accept and carry out the decisions of the Security Council in accordance with the Charter
    • Follow every press statement issued by the Secretary-General
    • Accept all judgments of every domestic court worldwide
    • Abandon their sovereignty upon joining the UN
13. Under Article 33 of the UN Charter, parties to a dispute likely to endanger international peace and security should first seek a solution by:
    • Military occupation
    • Compulsory annexation
    • Unilateral use of force
    • Negotiation, enquiry, mediation, conciliation, arbitration, judicial settlement, resort to regional agencies or arrangements, or other peaceful means of their choice
14. Under Article 94 of the UN Charter, if a party to an ICJ case fails to perform its obligations under the Court's judgment, the other party may:
    • Automatically dissolve the United Nations
    • Have the matter referred to the Security Council, which may make recommendations or decide upon measures
    • Replace the judgment with a private contract
    • Require the General Assembly to imprison the losing State's officials
15. Under Article 100 of the UN Charter, the Secretary-General and staff members must:
    • Take instructions from national governments in all matters
    • Serve only the interests of the State where they were born
    • Neither seek nor receive instructions from any government or outside authority and refrain from actions that might reflect on their international-official position
    • Obtain approval from every Member State before performing official duties
16. Under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982, the maximum breadth of an exclusive economic zone is generally:
    • 12 nautical miles from the territorial-sea baseline
    • 24 nautical miles from the territorial-sea baseline
    • 100 nautical miles from the territorial-sea baseline
    • 200 nautical miles from the territorial-sea baseline
17. Under UNCLOS, the coastal State's rights over its exclusive economic zone primarily include:
    • Sovereign rights to explore, exploit, conserve and manage natural resources, together with specified jurisdictional rights
    • Unlimited sovereignty over every foreign ship passing through the zone
    • Ownership of all foreign aircraft using international air routes
    • A right to prohibit all navigation by foreign States in every circumstance
18. Under UNCLOS, which State generally has jurisdiction over a ship on the high seas, subject to recognised exceptions?
    • Every coastal State equally
    • The State whose flag the ship is entitled to fly
    • The State whose citizens last boarded it
    • Any State that wishes to inspect it
19. Under Article 33 of the 1951 Refugee Convention, the principle of non-refoulement generally prohibits a contracting State from:
    • Issuing travel documents to refugees
    • Allowing refugees to access courts
    • Expelling or returning a refugee to territories where their life or freedom would be threatened for a Convention reason, subject to the provision's exceptions
    • Registering refugee claims
20. Under Article 2 of the International Law Commission's Articles on Responsibility of States for Internationally Wrongful Acts, an internationally wrongful act of a State requires:
    • Proof that the State's population disapproves of the conduct
    • A judgment by a domestic court in every case
    • Proof of financial loss in every case
    • Conduct consisting of an action or omission attributable to the State under international law and constituting a breach of an international obligation